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The solution to exposing Newcomb's paradox as fallacy is to view the potential monetary gains against the probability of the beings prediction being correct. For a given probability P the best choice is the one that gives the greatest return.
The formula: Return = P(Correct) + (1-P)(Wrong)
Lets assume a probability of 1 (ie. the being has a 100% chance of predicting correctly).
Return from taking B: 1(1,000,000) + 0(0) = 1,000,000
Return from taking both A and B: 1(1,000) + 0(1,001,000) = 1,000
As can be seen, if the being has a 100% chance of predicting correctly then the rewards of taking box B are much more favourable than taking both box A and box B. You may notice that this outcome is equivalent to Argument 2 above. Now let's assume a probability of 0.5 (the being has a 50% chance of predicting correctly).
Return from B: 0.5(1,000,000) + 0(0) = 500,000
Return from A and B: 0.5(1,000) + 0.5(1,001,000) = 501,000
With a probability of 0.5 the rewards of taking both box A and box B are slightly greater than taking only box B. This means that if the being only has a 50% chance of correctly predicting your choice then you should take both box A and Box B. Now let's assume a probability of 0 (The being has no chance of predicting correctly).
Return from taking B: 0 + 1(0) = 0
Return from taking both A and B: 0 + 1(1,001,000) = 1,001,000
This time the rewards of taking both box A and box B are far greater than taking only box B.
You may have noticed that the two formulas Return = P(1,000,000) + (1-P)(0) and Return = P(1,000) + (1-P)(1,001,000) are in fact straight lines and can be graphed as such:
The two lines intersect when P is at a value of 0.5005. That is to say that if the being has a greater probability than 0.5005 of being correct then you should take box B. If the probability of the being being correct is less than 0.5005 then you should take both box A and box B.
The paradox should now be exposed to you as a fallacy. If it is not, let me state more clearly why. Argument 1 relies on an implicit assumption that there are equal chances* whereas Argument 2 asserts that there is every chance that the being will correctly predict your choice.
At the end of the day you could say the being is either going to predict correctly or not, ascribe a probability of 0.5 and take both box A and box B. But if the being had previously made 1000 correct predictions then surely this line of action would be 1000 times more foolish than the other? If you say no then I guess you'd give yourself a 50/50 chance of beating Garry Kasparov at chess?
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